Rules Questions thread

I mean even if you don’t play Entangling Vines.

But the question is about whether activating gargoyle while he is entangled lets him attack. Which it should not.

I feel like rules as intended has entangling vines be a permanent effect, whereas gargoyle’s ability specifically overwrites his own innate inability, and nothing more.
Rules as written is a bit unclear though.

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Sure I agree.

When I “gain control of a unit” permanentishly, until death do us part, as with Troq’s Final Smash, I get it in exactly the state it’s in as regards exhaustion, arrival fatigue, and such – right? Unless my opponent for some reason didn’t use it at all, I will likely have to ready it on my next upkeep, right?

No, not quite. It always comes with arrival fatigue.
Kidnapping specifically states that the unit you take control of gains haste, so you can use it straight away.
Other things, like Final Smash, Mind Control, Ogre Recruiter and Assimilate do not grant haste, so you can’t exhaust or attack with them until your next turn (or if you give them haste!).

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Manufactured Truth makes one of your units a copy of a Tech 0 or 1 unit until end of turn. When exactly does the effect end? Specifically, does it end before or after you patrol?

For example, suppose I have a 1/1 Soldier, and my opponent has an Argonaut. I use Manufactured Truth to make my Soldier a copy of the Argonaut. The Soldier attacks the Argonaut and takes 3 damage. Will I get a chance to patrol my fake Argonaut in technician before it turns back into a soldier and dies?

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AFAIK, the End of Turn events are still considered part of your turn whereas patrol bonuses are only active during your opponents’ turns. So you won’t draw a card.

Yes, but you don’t get the bonus, as stated above.

This is marginally relevant if you have something or copy something that “can’t patrol”

Can I attack my own units? Like, let’s say I kidnap something I want dead. Can I attack it with something else I control?

You cannot attack your own units. I say this without any specific reference in the rulebook, but I feeel confident :smiley:

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Seems like you should? “Until end of turn” means that there is no time after the effect is created that is during your turn in which the effect does not apply. So the first moment where it doesn’t apply must be… after your turn.

“End of turn: Do X.” actually happens during your turn though, haha.

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That moment can still be before the opponent’s turn though and patrol zone bonuses only apply during the opponent’s turn.

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If a unit deals damage as - 1/-1 runes, does armor prevent runes from being added? Would a unit with 1 armor fighting a unit with 2 attack that deals damage as - 1/-1 runes get 1 rune or 2?

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Armor eats damage, regardless of what form the damage takes. So 1 armor would stop one -1/-1 rune.

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Think of it as “any damage dealt is done in the form of -1/-1 runes.” If no damage is dealt (i.e. it is prevented by armor or other means) then no -1/-1 runes are applied.

That’s interesting because deathtouch works the other way, right? Even damage to armor causes a kill.

While I’m here, how does overpower interact with deathtouch? Do you deal exactly 1 damage to the first thing and then overpower even if it has more health?

Overpower, iirc, is considered “combat damage”. So while I can’t think of anything that has both Overpower and Deathtouch, I’d see it working as follows:

  • Do as much damage as the unit you’re attacking can soak up
    • This unit will die no matter how much damage you do
  • If any damage is left over, do that damage to another thing that the attacker can attack.
    • Assuming this new target is also a unit/hero, it will also die no matter how much overpower damage was done to it.
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I had a Tiny Basilisk with a +1/+1 counter from Blooming Ancient and Blooming Elm in play (which gave it overpower). I assumed that it would deal 1 to the first target, which is lethal damage even if it has more health (since 1 damage kills a thing if you have deathtouch), and then 1 damage to another target, killing that as well. I would have won that game anyway, even without that play, but I’d like to know for future reference whether that play was correct or not. Hopefully we can get a more official ruling because I can see either interpretation as having merit.

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